I got lost on your theory when you started talking about a cap transfer/discharge where it was an ideal cap with no inductance in the conductor medium. This can never be. Just as there can never be a coil that is without inter-turn capacitance.
Dave
iinteresting that you say that about how i lost you when getting into the ideal versions of cap to cap. its interesting because mile high back in the day specifically brought the ideal situation to the table while i was having doubts in the back of my head on cap to cap and the consensus of why the 50% losses. so after he did communicate what he thought the outcome would be in ideal land, it hit me.... so i ran a sim with no resistance applied to any components. 50% loss....
what really led me to believe as i do after that, mile high said that in ideal land that doing a direct cap to cap, ideal, no resistance, that we would end up with 7.07v in each cap from a start of 10v. thats when the thoughts in the back of my head were starting to pan out as to why i felt there was a problem here that we are not paying attn too.. and i found my answers in coulombs law.
firstly, if you think that instilling a charge in a cap is not due to electrons being taken from the pos plate and also electrons being pumped into the neg plate in order to quantify that charge, then we probably wont get anywhere with this. but if you do, then follow me here...
basically if you inderstand what coulomb tells us then if we were to have a cap, no charge, and if we could take 1 electron from the pos plate and pumped 1 into the neg plate, that we could calc the exact voltage that the cap is charged to as long as we know the exact value of the capacitance. more electrons taken from the pos plate and sent to the neg plate, we can again calc the exact voltage potential in that cap with these 2 numbers, the electron count and the cap value.
so also. with a known voltage on the cap and its value of capacitance, we could calc the number of electrons displaced from the pos plate to the neg plate.
now. earlier i said that there would be an equalibrium of 7.07v in each cap starting with 10v more to see who would respond to that.
it is an impossiblility to have 7.07v in cap1 and 2 by way of just cap to cap, no inductor. just as some here have pointed out. and we can agree on that. what milehigh claimed with the ideal example and said we would end up with 7.07v in each cap, that was the clincher to be able to solidly say that resistance is not the cause of the loss. the only way, cap to cap, for the results of 7.07v to be left in each cap would be to add more electrons to the system than we started with.. like a 10gal bucket of water to an empty 10gal bucket, we can not end with 7.07gal in each bucket. 10lb air pressure in a tank and another empty tank. we can only end up with 5lb in each when said and done. in order to end with 7.07lb in each tank, more air would need to be added to the closed system. same for the water....
if you use verpies circuit, and started with 10v, and he turned off the transistor when cap1 got down to 7.07v, that inductor will charge cap2 to 7.07v. again, minus diode drops. total energy left idealy in cap1 and cap2 would be equal to the energy we started with in cap1 at 10v.
like mile high tried to be slick with the ideal example that he claimed we would end up with 7.07v in each cap if it were ideal, of which would show no loss. well the only way that could happen is if the electron count for each cap were altered from an external source durring the process. cant happen.
my point is that if we do cap to cap, and were to calc how many electrons were taken from cap1's pos plate and put in the neg plate in order to read 10v, once we do the cap to cap, and end up with 5v in each cap, we can calculate the number of excess electrons on each neg plate and how many are depleted from the pos plates, and those calculations will show numbers that we did not add nor lose any electrons to the closed system of the circuit durring that cap to cap event. we only reduced the initial energy we began with because we didnt do anything with that transfer from cap1 to cap 2. resistance of any value, even absolute 0ohms, the outcome will be exactly the same. the only difference between lower or higher resistance would be the time it takes to do the full conversion of cap1 at 10v, to cap1 and cap 2 each having 5v. now with the inductor, things change up. milehigh said that the inductor negates the resistance in order to end up with 10v in cap2 from a start of 10v in cap1.. i was like, WHAT??? Resistance is no longer a problem what so ever now?

na. makes no sence. meanwhile, with no inductor, any resistance gives the exact same results, 50% loss every time?

? any other circuit, add a series resistance and change that resistance and different results will occur for each change. but with cap to cap the ONLY thing that changes is the time. thats it.
why nobody elese questions this is beyond me. and once i convince some that the resistance is not the cause of the loss, they always then say that the cause of the loss is due to radiations. if that were true, then radiation losses of 50% would simply happen in everything we do. cap to cap with inductor and diode has no radiation losses??? give me a break. something is wrong when it comesnto the science on this subject.
also, i dont think we lose 50% when charging a cap from a source like a power supply, etc. if you do, can you explain that to me? and i will respond. there is a BIG difference between a constant source and a charged cap as a source, on that is definitely not constant at any time durring the transfer, just a continous depletion of potential from start to finish.
mags