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Author Topic: FEMM shows interesting OU effect, the airgap is everything.  (Read 6797 times)
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To this must be added the energy taken from the 50A current becaause of the flux change applying voltage to the current source during the movement, that calculates to 0.12065 joules.

Can you elaborate how you have come to this value please?
   

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    Hi smudge and thank you! I really appreciate constructive criticism like this rather than "You are wrong."
And it is via these dialogues that we all learn.  Your replies here help me understand where you are coming from and I will do my best to clarify my perception of the problem.

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What I find strange is how using magnetic energy over the elements gives such a different results. Here is a FEMM example where they talk about the different way to calculate inductance and how they are pretty much similar. One utilizes the magnetic energy while the other would then be your current method:

https://www.femm.info/wiki/InductanceExample

And as they state the former is indeed more accurate but the latter should be plenty accurate when most of the energy is confined and not in open air.
Note that they clearly state the integration should encompass the whole area of the problem, whereas you were only doing the core.

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Now I have two remarks for you.

  • 1) I find it very peculiar that your calculated energy values are in the ball park of 2x of mine? In the attached sim images I changed the magnets to be air to eliminate their contribution. I then Energized the coil to 50A and calculated the magnetic energy in the region both with and without the surrounding air. As you see the difference does not account for the 2x. I find it strange that FEMM itself demonstrates that both of these values can yield the same results when used in the correct situation yet ours are very different.
When you eliminated the magnets the field is then almost entirely contained in the core, but there is some in the air as you can see some field contours.  So you would expect your two values to be slightly different as you found.  Your two values are to be expected, and to check this I modified your sim so that the coil is wound around the whole core, not just the RH limb.  Then the field in the air disappears and the two values are virtually the same.  With the magnets present the field in the air has contribution both from the magnets and from the coil current, so the air contribution is even higher.
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  • 2) Then what is also important in your analysis is to consider how this summation calculation of energy behaves depending on mesh refinement. Something I often do as a sanity check to validate the values on super fine meshes. where I do most of the quick checks with medium fine meshes and then the final with a superfine refinement that takes much longer to process but gives more accurate results. Does your energy delta change much with finer meshing?
If so then this should be considered as an stastical error and accounted for especially when dealing with summations where errors tend to add up.
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I understand what you are implying but your findings with finer mesh showing that your mesh size is adequate will also apply in my case since the fields are the same.

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To expand on the latter I believe for flux linkage, FEMM is using a clever contouring technique to calculate the area encased by the coil terminals. You even see such contours when you work with very refined meshes and calculate forces in such regions. It draws little red contours around the magnets for instance and uses them to calculates the force. The more "smooth" these lines (aka more triangles) the more accurate the calculated values. Thus in your analysis this "enclosing area" should be more refined to increase the accuracy of this value. Whereas right now the core region of the coil does not have that fine of a refinement as you see in the attached image.
That "contouring technique" is the Maxwell stress tensor mask and only applies to the force and torque measurements.  It is not used in the magnetic energy integration, that is done in the area you select where the BH product is evaluated for a finite number or area elements within the material boundary.

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Also as an another example I compared the flux linkage difference between the current mesh and a more refined mesh at 50A current (again with no magnets). And as you see attached the difference cannot be underestimated. And following the rule of error propagation in statistics, and by assuming that the error value (sigma) is the same over every sample point. This simplifies to sigma*squareroot(n) where n is the amount of sample points (current values) you took. This means the error value grows by the square root of the amount of sample points. Whereas using the magnetic energy you dont need to worry about such propagation as you dont need multiple summations to approximate the energy. You just get it in one shot and thus focus all the processing power on the final run. Whereas with flux linkage you need to consider the error of each samplepoint which depends on the the mesh refinement. Thus to consider this cumulative error I suggest you do one run with the current mesh and then one with a super fine one and take the difference. This difference can be your "fixed" error and used as the error for any subsequent run with a more coarse mesh to improve simulation times. From this you can determine the total error of the final result by multiply it to the squareroot of the amount of samples taken.
I see flux linkage presented to three significant figures as 0.0595, 0.0595 and 0.0595 for the three meshes you used.  That tells me even the coarsest mesh is OK to use and your argument on the statistics does not apply.

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Of course this is a simplistic approach. A more thorough one would be to do the entire analysis with a fine mesh and more sample points.

Can you perform this suggestion at perhaps 100 amps with 10 sample points and consider the errror value?
I can do the 100A but I don't see a significant error value in my method.  Using Simpson's rule takes care of the small number of current data points.

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EDIT: Forgot to ask, did you move the magnets 1mm away or towards the core/coil in your analysis? As in the previously shared file the magnet was already moved away 1mm and thus the analysis should be done by comparing the current magnet location vs 1mm TOWARDS the core.
I used the two magnet positions that you used as shown by the agreement of my force values with yours.

From your next post
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Can you elaborate how you have come to this value please?
It is simple.  The flux change that takes place during the 1mm magnet movement with the coil current at 50A was 0.03987 at the outer position minus 0.037457 at the inner position yielding a difference of 0.002413 that when multiplied by 50A gives 0.12065 Joules energy.

Smudge
 
   

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Forgot to add to the previous post.  On the subject of inductive energy it is acceptable to use the FEMM flux/current value (henries) as the inductance for linear materials.  Clearly in this case we can't because the material is not linear.  But is is acceptable to plot flux v. current and to use the area to the left of the curve as the input energy.  The FEMM magnetic energy integration also can be used if the fields inside the core and outside the core do not contain fields from another source such as a permanant magnet. With PM fields there the the magnetic energy approach falls down because some of the field regions can have reduced energy when the coil is energized.  It is quite possible for the magnetic energy approach to yield a total loss of magnetic energy when the coil is energized yet the current source supplies energy (example a ring core of material that has coercivity with PM energy in the core that is neutralized by current in a coil wound over the whole core).  In that case the only method for determining the input energy from the coil is the one I use and I am surprised that this is not made clear in FEMM tutorials.

Smudge
   
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Forgot to add to the previous post.  On the subject of inductive energy it is acceptable to use the FEMM flux/current value (henries) as the inductance for linear materials.  Clearly in this case we can't because the material is not linear.  But is is acceptable to plot flux v. current and to use the area to the left of the curve as the input energy.  The FEMM magnetic energy integration also can be used if the fields inside the core and outside the core do not contain fields from another source such as a permanant magnet. With PM fields there the the magnetic energy approach falls down because some of the field regions can have reduced energy when the coil is energized.  It is quite possible for the magnetic energy approach to yield a total loss of magnetic energy when the coil is energized yet the current source supplies energy (example a ring core of material that has coercivity with PM energy in the core that is neutralized by current in a coil wound over the whole core).  In that case the only method for determining the input energy from the coil is the one I use and I am surprised that this is not made clear in FEMM tutorials.

Smudge

I understand what you are trying to say, when both a magnet and coil apply an opposite field then the coil would still hold energy but the core would appear to have 0 energy as the fields cancel. My argument is that this doesn't matter. As it should be enough to only look at the delta energy change of the system. Because assuming a super conductor where current keeps flowing, when you move the magnet out this current would indeed drop due to the change of circumstances, mainly the influence of the magnet on the domains changed. This change causes an energy delta in the system to occur. So even if your initial condition was such that the whole magnetic energy was 0 in your region. The delta will tell you how much it changed from its INITIAL condition. You seem to have added this complete Initial energy to your calculation and is confusing.

This initial energy can indeed be 0 or any value in the core region really. It is the overal magnetic energy change of  the core (due to the movement of the magnet) that results in "flux change" and thus a reaction from the coil. This reaction and energy change should match exactly with the provided energy from the coil when considering a constant current source. The initial energy of the core with or without the magnet should be irrelevant as you pay for that once at the very start, and from there on only the delta matters as the system oscillates between these two states. I believe this is why I was confused about that added final value to the difference. You are overcompensation for the total input energy by also considering the "initial" energy to get the coil to 50A. The advantage of the Magnetic energy method is that you dont have to consider this. Because 1) you get most of it back when you power the coil down and 2) You only need to know the total magnetic energy change to know what changed for the coil energy wise. And thus its this delta that determines your total energy cost.

I also redid the analysis. I used a fully enclosed coil now as you did and a much finer mesh as you can see below. This time I also selected the copper coil region itself in the magnetic energy calculation. This would actually be an overestimation as this region also contains the magnet's field and doubles the previous values I had. But even with this better refinement, enclosed coil setup AND doubling of the magnetic energy values. The COP is still at 3x.

I believe the real debate here is, did I omit the initial energy of the coil or did you over account for it. This overcompensation would be akin to me adding the total magnetic energy of the core when the magnets have moved to the final difference value of the magnetic energy. It wouldn't make sense as this energy can be recouped when powering down the coil. Only the delta is lost for good. So on that merrit my delta is even double that of yours and still get a COP of 3.

Since this calculation table also shows how the energy behaves without a magnet it is clearly evident that the magnetic energy or "flux" (a term I dont like to use) is reducing as the magnet moves away. As a consequence the coil will try to compensate by INCREASING the current. What other motor coil reacts in such a way to aid the magnets motion rather than oppose it?
   
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I thought this was really interesting, https://hackaday.io/project/11865-3d-magnetic-field-scanner

Why guess with a simulator when we could gather real data and facts with a magnetic field scanner?.

AC


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Comprehend and Copy Nature... Viktor Schauberger

“The first principle is that you must not fool yourself and you are the easiest person to fool.”― Richard P. Feynman
   

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I thought this was really interesting, https://hackaday.io/project/11865-3d-magnetic-field-scanner

Why guess with a simulator when we could gather real data and facts with a magnetic field scanner?.

AC
It will have trouble telling you what the field levels are inside materials, which is what we are dealing with here.

Smudge
   

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I understand what you are trying to say, when both a magnet and coil apply an opposite field then the coil would still hold energy but the core would appear to have 0 energy as the fields cancel.

It is not a case of the coil "holding" energy, in the case of a coil around the magnet cancelling the field in the magnet there is no energy for the coil to hold.  It is a case of the coil current source supplying energy, and for a constant current source it can only supply energy if it is seeing a voltage.
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My argument is that this doesn't matter. As it should be enough to only look at the delta energy change of the system.
But if the two energies are in error then the delta will also be in error.
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Because assuming a super conductor where current keeps flowing, when you move the magnet out this current would indeed drop due to the change of circumstances
That is not correct.  The current is constant, the change of circumstances cannot change the current, but it does present a voltage to the constant current source.
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, mainly the influence of the magnet on the domains changed. This change causes an energy delta in the system to occur. So even if your initial condition was such that the whole magnetic energy was 0 in your region. The delta will tell you how much it changed from its INITIAL condition. You seem to have added this complete Initial energy to your calculation and is confusing.
I do not add energy!!  I correctly determine the energy delivered by the current source on current switch on and the energy recovered back to the source on current switch off.  There is no magnet movement while the current rises or falls.  During the rise and the fall the flux change is delivering voltage to the generator.  I also take account of the flux change applied to the energized coil during magnet movement that also applies voltage to the current source.
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This initial energy can indeed be 0 or any value in the core region really. It is the overal magnetic energy change of  the core (due to the movement of the magnet) that results in "flux change" and thus a reaction from the coil. This reaction and energy change should match exactly with the provided energy from the coil when considering a constant current source. The initial energy of the core with or without the magnet should be irrelevant as you pay for that once at the very start, and from there on only the delta matters as the system oscillates between these two states. I believe this is why I was confused about that added final value to the difference. You are overcompensation for the total input energy by also considering the "initial" energy to get the coil to 50A. The advantage of the Magnetic energy method is that you dont have to consider this. Because 1) you get most of it back when you power the coil down and 2) You only need to know the total magnetic energy change to know what changed for the coil energy wise. And thus its this delta that determines your total energy cost.

I also redid the analysis. I used a fully enclosed coil now as you did and a much finer mesh as you can see below. This time I also selected the copper coil region itself in the magnetic energy calculation. This would actually be an overestimation as this region also contains the magnet's field and doubles the previous values I had. But even with this better refinement, enclosed coil setup AND doubling of the magnetic energy values. The COP is still at 3x.
Using an incorrect method.
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I believe the real debate here is, did I omit the initial energy of the coil or did you over account for it.
There is no initial "energy in the coil" in my calculations as I only consider energy delivered by the current source. I think the real debate is what method is correct, yours or mine.   
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This overcompensation would be akin to me adding the total magnetic energy of the core when the magnets have moved to the final difference value of the magnetic energy. It wouldn't make sense as this energy can be recouped when powering down the coil. Only the delta is lost for good. So on that merrit my delta is even double that of yours and still get a COP of 3.

Since this calculation table also shows how the energy behaves without a magnet it is clearly evident that the magnetic energy or "flux" (a term I dont like to use) is reducing as the magnet moves away. As a consequence the coil will try to compensate by INCREASING the current. What other motor coil reacts in such a way to aid the magnets motion rather than oppose it?
The current can't INCREASE, it is a constant current generator that has infinite internal impedance.

Smudge
   
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I have to agree and concede on the part of where during the movement the ELECTRICAL energy should be considered as well to maintain the current during the flux change as you point out. So yes that was an error of omission on my part and have corrected the mistake by adding this to the total value now. And this does bring the system closer to unity BUT I have noticed something interesting between the relation of the magnetic energy of the core and that of the magnet and the flux linkage which I dont see in your graph.

I will post this when it is finished.
   
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I went the extra mile and tried to structure the data more clearly and used a visual aid we humans are good at picking up, colors!

So anyway the initial underunity result, after the correction due to the omission of the electrical energy, becomes an overunity effect beyond certain current flow. You can even see this under/over unity inflection point.

Something I dont also see in your graph is the sign of the flux linkage. Negative areas would reduce the total area of an integral no?

I ran all these with quite a high mesh refinement so it took quite a bit to gather manually. I attached the excel file too if you want to parse and validate the data or compare to the Flux linkage integral method.

So what makes this overunity effect? Well its evidently clear now from this data. At high enough currents, saturation kicks in and the flux linkage no longer changes that much. Evident from the change going down beyond 50A. Now pushing the current beyond saturation costs a lot less energy BUT what apparently does keep decreasing in a linear fashion is the mechanical force. This inflection point causes an the mechanical energy to dominate the electric energy input required to maintain the coil at a constant current.
« Last Edit: 2024-03-03, 19:23:33 by broli »
   

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Can you post the Excell file zipped then I can use your data in my calculations for comparison with yours.
   
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Can you post the Excell file zipped then I can use your data in my calculations for comparison with yours.

My bad, has been attached now including the FEMM file.
   

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If a solenoid with a current in it is allowed to expand (as if it was a rubber solenoid), it does mechanical work, and at the same time the energy of the magnetic field in it increases. But this comes at the cost of increasing current. something like this...
   

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Broli,

I have added my calculations to yor Excel file.  Column O is the flux linkage data adjusted so that it shows the cumulative flux change seen by the coil for each current step.  Column P is the co-energy that is the area between the BH curve and the current axis.  It uses simple trapezoidal integration between steps as the current points are not suitable for Simpson's Rule.  Column Q is the BH energy between the BH curve and the flux axis, obtained by subtracting the co-energy from the BH rectangle.  This is input electrical energy for current rise and electrical recovered energy for current fall.  Column R is the input-recovered energy difference.  Coumn S adds the input energy due to flux change during magnet movement (adds your column K).  Column T is your mechanical energy column J divided by my total electrical input.

Smudge
   
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Hi Smudge thank you for your post. I will be building a lua script to increment in 1A steps to make the calculations even more accurate. I have done some reading on the concept of coenergy and you are right I now see how the flux linkage method (aka co-energy) is the more accurate way to determine the input/output electrical energy. So I will be using that method as well going forward.

However I have hinted at something multiple times now. But why are we substracting the energy we found using the flux linkage integral method?? At 1mm shift the latent coenergy of the coil INCREASED which is evident if you compare the flux linkage values in the table between 1mm and 0mm. Electrically during the maintenance of the 100A value sure that cost us some energy (which I erroneously left out initially). But the coenergy of the coil after we drain the coil is HIGHER so that is a WIN not a loss! I often catch myself too thinking in losses when it comes to OU but often miss a win when its right in front of me.
   

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The co-energy is not the electrical input energy, it is the integral of the current with respect to the flux-linkage.  Although it has dimension of energy it can't be used for the energy audit without using it to determine the other BH energy the other side of the curve.  An increase in co-energy becomes a decrease in the Important real electrical energy.
   
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The co-energy is not the electrical input energy, it is the integral of the current with respect to the flux-linkage.  Although it has dimension of energy it can't be used for the energy audit without using it to determine the other BH energy the other side of the curve.  An increase in co-energy becomes a decrease in the Important real electrical energy.

The other side would be the method I initially used by determining the energy in the space and core. This is the BxH magnetic energy or also just called the energy or "other side" as you call it. However its either you use one or the other not both. Because coenergy is the actual effect you see when you power up the coil and down again to extract its energy once more. So for our electrical input side all that matters is this flux change as we power up and down the coil AND the intermittent flux change as we move the PM. This would give us the complete effect we experience when interacting with the coil from the electrical side. The rest is a black box to us. Now in this black box we have a different system interacting mechanically with its own energy inbalance. What matters is what we input in the coil, maintain a steady state for a bit, and then get back out of it. This is only the coenergy difference + intermittent electrical energy.

In nonlinear systems, energy and coenergy are not the same. The difference between coenergy and energy is related to the work done by the system. This is especially relevant in systems where the properties change with operation, such as in the presence of magnetic saturation or variable reluctance. The energy field would be a great hint at what this means but it is not part of the energy balance we only care about. The electrical side and the mechanical side, the inbetween magnetic energy just happens to happen. We can study it or meanwhile also use the extra energy to warm our cold butts.
   

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The other side would be the method I initially used by determining the energy in the space and core. This is the BxH magnetic energy or also just called the energy or "other side" as you call it. However its either you use one or the other not both. Because coenergy is the actual effect you see when you power up the coil and down again to extract its energy once more. So for our electrical input side all that matters is this flux change as we power up and down the coil AND the intermittent flux change as we move the PM. This would give us the complete effect we experience when interacting with the coil from the electrical side. The rest is a black box to us. Now in this black box we have a different system interacting mechanically with its own energy inbalance. What matters is what we input in the coil, maintain a steady state for a bit, and then get back out of it. This is only the coenergy difference + intermittent electrical energy.
You have got things the wrong way round.  The co-energy is the area between the BH curve and the H axis.  (Actually that is volume density and must be multiplied by the core volume to get energy.)  Using flux linkage against current gives you energy directly where the co-energy is the area between the curve and the current axis and that does not give you the input energy from the coil.  It is the integral of Phi.di and that cannot be changed to i*V*t.  The area between the curve and the flux axis is the one we want, that is the integral of i.dPhi that can be changed to the integral of i*(dPhi/dt).dt that becomes the integral of i*V.dt that is Power*time.  It is known as the magnetic energy, not co-energy.  To use your terminology, we should use that energy difference + intermittent electrical energy.   When there is some PM field present we can't use the FEMM magnetic energy value since that does not relate to the Phi v. i curve because there are B*H areas where B comes from the PM, not from the coil.  We have to use the intermediate current value to generate the Phi v. i curve and do the area integration outside FEMM.
   
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Again you are correct, to be frank this is also the first time I heard of this idea which makes much more sense to use now that I understand it, thanks.

However this made it now even MORE clear to me why FEMM shows this OU effect. EVERYWHERE, core saturation is seen as a very bad thing in other words you are forced to stay on the linear part of the BH Curve as soon as you go non-linear you have gone too far and have "losses". However these losses become gains in this design, the higher you drive the core into saturation the lower the losses! The only limit is the current through a copper coil. At high enough currents even the differential flux change at the intermediate phase becomes so low. Meaning the difference in magnetic energy becomes lower and lower as you go higher with the current and remarkably the force even flips at a certain point.

So why does FEMM show such atypical behavior? Because this has been part of electromechanics all along! We have been mostly using the "linear" part and didn't dare to touch the "non-linear" part however modern day PMs are very strong ex. NdFeB and this would allow for significant force differentials. So then the magnet is the energy source? Yep.

Still working on parsing the data of the lua runs, I am getting a bit over obsessed again and affecting my personal life because of this. I attached the data and some rough data structuring, would be nice if you did the parsing Smudge. Thanks
« Last Edit: 2024-03-08, 21:00:44 by broli »
   
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Have been watching an interesting web series on this subject:

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=85EX0LpDrVo&list=PLHq09ObRyxDBD3AJXHW4LI8egLSd0Eb1F

I am still running all kind of tests and am curious to see what would be the most "power dense" design. Ironically the more coercive the core material the better, because you are not fighting the already alligned domains only the ones aligned by the permanent magnet. Your only true enemy is ohmic losses and eddy currents.
   
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Attached is the data of two runs one where the core has an air gap and one where it doesn't. Using the flux linkage method now one can see clearly how the COP remains at around 1 because of the air gap provides highly linear behavior. However in the second sheet contains the data of the setup with no airgap, now when the system reaches its non-linear phase the COP goes beyond 1.

EDIT: A very interesting recent paper on the behavior of magnetic hysteresis. It shows the behavior of "branching" quite well too. I added a BH curve that represents the BH hysterisis losses and shows that a high core coercivity actually reduces the core losses in this setup where the green area represents the energy loss.

https://www.mdpi.com/1996-1073/16/9/3908
« Last Edit: 2024-03-08, 22:14:00 by broli »
   

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Broli.

I have calculated the COP using your FEMM data and I can confirm that it does indeed show COP>1 above 70A current.  The attached image compares my COP to yours and the difference is merely a shift sideways by 1A and that is just our different ways of doing the fit to the FEMM data, shifting the results one line in the spreadsheet.  The deviation from near unity at the lower currents can be explained by the crudity of the integration over the non-linear region of flux v current.  I need now to find out why (a) the results are just below unity over most of the region below 70A and (b) why the results are above unity at over 70A.  I know that the atomic current circulations (electron spins and orbits) responsible for the magnetization in both ferromagnetic hard and soft materials can deliver energy (and sink energy) as though they are actual currents in coils.  (F6 will disagree but that doesn't matter.)  In the case of PMs the effective coil current (just Google equivalent surface current) is constant over the full cycle so there is no net energy gain.  But in some parts of your scheme the effective coil currents are not constant (the Fe part joning the two NdFeB magnets and of course the ring core) and it is here that I expect to find the source of the excess energy (and the sink for the lost energy below 70A)

Smudge   
   
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Broli.

I have calculated the COP using your FEMM data and I can confirm that it does indeed show COP>1 above 70A current.  The attached image compares my COP to yours and the difference is merely a shift sideways by 1A and that is just our different ways of doing the fit to the FEMM data, shifting the results one line in the spreadsheet.  The deviation from near unity at the lower currents can be explained by the crudity of the integration over the non-linear region of flux v current.  I need now to find out why (a) the results are just below unity over most of the region below 70A and (b) why the results are above unity at over 70A.  I know that the atomic current circulations (electron spins and orbits) responsible for the magnetization in both ferromagnetic hard and soft materials can deliver energy (and sink energy) as though they are actual currents in coils.  (F6 will disagree but that doesn't matter.)  In the case of PMs the effective coil current (just Google equivalent surface current) is constant over the full cycle so there is no net energy gain.  But in some parts of your scheme the effective coil currents are not constant (the Fe part joning the two NdFeB magnets and of course the ring core) and it is here that I expect to find the source of the excess energy (and the sink for the lost energy below 70A)

Smudge

Hi Smudge, thanks for the extra validation. I have decided to let it rest for a bit as the data was starting to play tricks on my mind. Depending on how I integrated both sides (power up vs power down) I got everything from under, over and unity which is quite strange to say the least for such a small change in calculating the area under a curve. It weirded me out for a bit and sometimes its best to approach something when your mind has been cleared.
   
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I wanted to make a post but I am also a visual person and like to use pictures references throughout text. So I deciced to write it down in a word file which I attached.

Will attach the referenced experiment later but it cant be more simpler than a toroidal coil and a magnet sim.

EDIT: Updated the document with new illustrations and examples.
« Last Edit: 2024-03-19, 11:51:12 by broli »
   
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I believe the source of energy is Earth magnetosphere
   

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I believe the source of energy is Earth magnetosphere
But Earth magnetosphere is actually too slight. :o
   
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